From The Trinity Delusion
John 1:18
No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him. NASB
Trinitarian Claim
Trinitarians here claim that Jesus is being identified as "God."
The Claim vs. The Facts
The facts show that Trinitarians are cherry picking a variant manuscript reading of a verse which is known to have suffered corruption.
The Problem with the Claim
1. Authenticity
There are two main manuscript traditions for this passage. Your Bible may show this in a footnote to this verse. The ancient manuscripts we do have in our possession are not in agreement. Some manuscripts read "God" while other manuscripts read "Son." Most early church writings quote "Son" while some writers quote "God," especially after the Council of Nicea. Hence, at least one of these readings is a corruption and did not originally come from the hand of the Apostle John.
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It is very difficult to tell which rendering is authentic based purely upon the manuscript evidence alone. The very earliest manuscript we have reads "monogenes God." However, it is a well known fact among textual critics that earliest does not necessarily mean best. Additionally, all the manuscripts which read "God" seem to conspicuously reflect an Alexandrian tradition while the ancient non-Alexandrian tradition seems to consistently have "Son" with few exceptions. Early Christian writings also tend to lean heavily toward the "Son" reading which indicates they were using manuscripts which had that reading. Moreover, some of these patristic documents pre-date most of the earliest manuscripts we have in our possession.
2. Variations in Major Trinitarian Translation
The difference between these two traditions can be seen in major Trinitarian Bible versions, some of which are translated from one manuscript tradition and others which are translated from the other manuscript tradition. The most recent translations tend to have "only-begotten God."
No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him. (NASB).
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No one has ever seen God. The only Son, God, who is at the Father's side, has revealed him. (NAB).
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No one has ever seen God, but God the One and Only, who is at the Father's side, has made him known. (NIV).
No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. (ASV).
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No one has ever seen God; the only Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, he has made him known. (RSV).
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No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared [him]. (ASV).
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No man hath seen God at any time: the only begotten Son who is in the Bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. (Douey-Rheims).
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No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. (KJV).
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The difference in in these Trinitarian translations illustrates a very serious problem in using this passage as evidence concerning Trinitarian doctrine. These differences reflect a changing opinion over time since the Bible was first translated into English. The older translations tend to have "Son," while the newer translations have "God." This is partly due to an accessibility to a wider variety manuscripts for modern translators. The difference in translations is mainly due to modern manuscript discoveries.
3. Immanuel was prophesied to be born during the Reign of King Ahaz (8th century BC)
The earliest manuscripts have "monogenes God." However, earliest does not necessarily mean authentic because our earliest copy could very well be a corrupted copy. Textual corruptions, even intentional textual corruptions, are known to have occurred at a very early date in church history. These manuscripts also seen to be concentrated in the Alexandrian locale and textual criticisicm tells us this means we just might have a locally perpetuated error on our hands. Second, Egypt was known for a high level of Gnostic activity and they were well known to have tampered with Scripture. The Gnostics also would have preferred the rendering "monogenes God" as we shall soon see. The Chester Beatty papryii, for example, were found in the Nag Hammadi region where Gnostic Scriptures were also discovered.
4. The Early Christian Witness
We also need to consider the evidence provided by early Christians. Which version did they have in their possession? We can find out by discovering which version they quoted in their writings.
5. Easy Opportunity for Corruption
Another fact concerning this passage is the nomina sacra for "God" and "Son." These were very common scribal abbreviations that lessened the pain of endless hours of manuscript copying. The nomina sacra ΘΣ ("God") and ΥΣ ("Son") differ only by one Greek letter providing a high likelihood of scribal error or providing an easy opportunity for corruption.
Analysis of the Facts
1. The Ante-Nicene Voice
Clement of Alexandria, writing in the early 200's in his Stromata (V, 12), appears to have " monogenes God," but he also has "monogenes Son" in the same document (I, 26) and his The Instructor has "monogenes Son" (I,3) suggesting that the line which reads "monogenes God" in the Stromata could be a copy corruption, or vice versa. Origen has "monogenes Son" in Against Celsus (II, 71) but "monogenes" in his Commentary on John (II, 24). Both Clement and Origen were Alexandrians.
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Tertullian around 212 A.D. has "monogenes Son" in Against Praxeas (VIII; XV). In the later 200's, Archelaus in his Disputation with the Heresiarch Manicheus, still has "monogenes Son" (XXXII). Hippolytus has "monogenes Son" in Against Noetus (V). All these men were writing before Nicea and the development of Trinitarian doctrines. Alexander who writes against the Arius and the Arian heresy always refers to "monogenes Son." The ante-Nicene texts which have "monogenes" God seem to be confined to one locality - Alexandria - where Platonism and Gnosticism flourished. So we can see here a very serious problem with the "monogenes God" manuscript reading of this passage. Either the texts of the Bible were later miscopied and/or corrupted, or the texts of these church fathers were later corrupted with an interpolation to meet a new doctrine and/or a later corrupted Bible text.
2. Irenaeus
As we can see from evidence in the above list, and if we assume these early Christian writings are not corrupted, both renderings of John 1:18 are attested from around 200 A.D. With very few exceptions, the "monogenes God" version is restricted to the Alexandrian region which strongly suggests a locally circulated corruption. The following quotation by Irenaeus which has "monogenes God" is considered to be an interpolation (i.e. corrupted text) by translators and textual critics (and yes they are Trinitarians).
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But His Word, as He Himself willed it, and for the benefit of those who beheld, did show the Father's brightness, and explained His purposes (as also the Lord said: "The monogenes God, which is in the bosom of the Father, He hath declared [Him];" and He does Himself also interpret the Word of the Father as being rich and great); not in one figure, nor in one character, did He appear to those seeing Him, but according to the reasons and effects aimed at in His dispensations, as it is written in Daniel."
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The portion in brackets is thought to have been added to Irenaeus' actual words. The style and structure of the sentence indicates these are not his own words and it would also contain an error because John said these words in narration, not the Lord Jesus as this interpolation mistakenly indicates. Moreover, Irenaeus had just finished quoting John 1:18 as "monogenes Son" in the preceding context.
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Another interesting fact concerning this particular quotation by Irenaeus is the context in which he said these words. In the following passage, Irenaeus is saying the only begotten Son declares the one God who Irenaeus identifies as the Father.
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"Indeed, then, the Scripture declared, which says, "First of all believe that there is One God, who has established all things, and finished them, and having caused that from what had no being, all things should come into existence." He who contains all things, and is Himself contained by no one. Rightly also has Malachi said among the prophets, "Is it not One God who established us? Have we not all One Father?" Corresponding to this, too, does the apostle say, "There is One God, the Father, who is above all, and in us all".... There is One God, the Father, who upholds all things, and who bestows existence to all, as is written in the Gospel, "No man hath seen God at any time, except the monogenes Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared." (Against Heresies, Book IV, 20).
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Here we have clear evidence the rendering "monogenes Son" was in use in the early church well before 200 A.D. The "monogenes God" text seems to first show up around 200 A.D. in Egypt and these are the earliest manuscripts we have in our possession at this time. However, the evidence merely suggests such a date and this reading may have been in circulation at an even earlier time. We must also be reminded that Gnostics were amiable to the "monogenes god" rendering and the Gnostic population was relatively large long before 200 A.D. and especially in Egypt. And for the later Arians, it afforded them the same idea they advocated in John 1:1. The Arians believed Jesus was "a god", a begotten God of the unbegotten God. This is likely why we do not find the Athanasians clamoring to use John 1:18 to support his argument against Arius or the Arians.
3. The Two God Dilemma
The meaning of the Greek word monogenes is debated. If it does mean "only-begotten," and the text did indeed say, "No one has seen God; the only-begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father expresses Him", this introduces the concept of multiple Gods. Unbegotten God number 1 is expressed by the other begotten God number 2. One simply cannot escape the fact that John would be describing "a" distinct God that everyone saw from "the" distinct God no one has ever seen, but who is declared by the other God who people can see. Indeed, such a rendering indicates the visible God expresses the invisible God and the unbegotten God begat a begotten God, the second God declares the first God. Since the Word is begotten of God then we have a begotten God of the unbegotten God. And in the end, the Trinitarian has two Gods on his hands and is caught in the very predicament he accuses Arians of being found in.
No one has seen God the Father; the only-begotten God... declares God the Father",
The only way out of this predicament is for Trinitarians to pretend in his mind that John was simply saying that one person of the Trinity is expressing another person of the Trinity. In other words, he must try to insist that this is no different than saying God the Son expresses God the Father. However, this contrivance doesn't work because this claim ignores what the "monogenes God" reading states. It simply doesn't say that the Son expresses the Father. This version says the begotten God reveals/declares God the Father. The passage says that one visible begotten God expresses another invisible unbegotten God. This would not be a case of the Son member of the one Triune God expressing the Father member of the one Triune God, but a case of one God expressing another God. It is inescapable.
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We must ask ourselves as monotheists what version is more plausible. Is it more plausible for John to have said the begotten God declares/reveals/expresses the unbegotten God? Or is it more plausible for John to have said the Son declares/reveals/expresses God the Father?
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Polytheism
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Trinitarians insist they do not believe there are three Gods in one God. They say they simply believe there are three persons in one God. This is just a way of saying they believe each of the three persons are God because all three share the common substance of God. In other words, they do not believe in three who's in one who but three who's in one what. Their Triune God is a "what," a substance of being, a divine nature and that is how their God is one.
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However, John 1:18 puts them into a dire dilemma. Here we have an "only begotten God." Obviously, this God would need to be distinguished from the Triune God. Hence, the Son is a begotten God, the only begotten God and would be therefore a distinct God from the Trinitarian Triune God. Also, the Father is the unbegotten God in Trinitarianism. Hence, the Father too is a God. And the Holy Spirit is co-equal to the other two and so the Spirit is also a God. And then Trinitarians also believe in one other Triune God making a total of four Gods.
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1. The unbegotten God
2. The begotten God
3. The Holy Spirit co-equal with the unbegotten God and the begotten God
4. The Triune God
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No matter how you look at it, the Trinitarian ends up with more than one God.
4. The Internal Evidence: Father-Son Relationship
If the passage did say, "monogenes God," then such a translation would also be inconsistent with the rest of John's message where Jesus is always portrayed as God's only-begotten Son. The Greek word itself, monogenes, indicates a Father/Son relationship. The same word is used of Isaac at Hebrews 11:17. If we carefully think about the siutation, the Father-Son version of the text seems to be far more likely than the only begotten God version. No one has seen God but the only-begotten [somebody] who is in the bosom of the Father expresses Him. If we are to understand that "God" here in this verse is the Father and only the Father, then what word goes with "Father?" The term "only-begotten Son" goes with the word "Father." No one has ever seen God but God's only-begotten Son expresses him who is his Father and whom no one has ever seen. Verse 14 tells us that he is the Word that became flesh and verse 15 that he is the only-begotten from the Father and right here in this passage we see that he is "unto the bosom of the Father." Not only so, the point of John's Gospel is that human flesh manifested the Father in terms of the things that flesh said and did; the Father abiding in Jesus did the works (14:10).
The "monogenes God" version is conspicuously out of place in John's writings. Christ is always portrayed by John as someone of God, Lamb of God, Son of God, Love of God, Glory of God, Word of God, Bread of God, and and begotten of God. Secondly, "monogenes God" goes against John's immediate message. It makes John out to be speaking ambiguously to say no one has ever seen God, and then to say God who everyone saw declared God who no one has ever seen. It doesn't make any sense.
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Even further, notice what word monogenes is modifying throughout the rest of John's writings: son. Jesus is God's unique son. And of course he would be if he was an only begotten son. However, now think about how out of place the term "monogenes God" is in contrast to "monogenes Son." Why would John import such language to describe God? Why would John refer to an only-begotten God, or if you prefer, a one of a kind God, or a unique God? It is very weird selection of vocabulary to describe God Himself as monogenes. It is very understandable why John would describe God's son as monogenes. It appears Trinitarians want to read "God" but think "Son" when they read John 1:18.
5. "One of a Kind" you say? So God the Father is the monogenes God too?
In order to try and escape the two-God dilemma, Trinitarians need to claim monogenes does not mean "only-begotten" and only means "one of a kind" or they end up with an (1) unbegotten God and (2) a begotten God who is not the unbegotten God, two Gods. Even further, they claim that they do not believe in three Gods where the implication is that the Son is not a God in addition to the Father, but this would indeed result in such a situtation. Hence, Trinitarians are left with the need to claim the Father is the monogenes God too since they also claim there is only one God.
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In verse 14, Jesus is being describes as "the monogenes of the Father. Is that the type of language that could also be applied to the Father? Who is the Father a monogenes OF? No, we read throughout John that this language is referring to God's one of a kind son. But why was Jesus a unique son? Jesus was a one of a kind son because he was God's only begotten son. But in verse 18, we would read that the monogenes God declares God. Is that the type of language that could also be applied to the Father? Does it make sense to have John's point as, "the one of a kind God" reveals "the one of a kind God" or "the one of a kind God" reveals "the Father" This issue alone should be enough to make one realize the serious problem with this Trinitarian claim. God is not a "kind" or "genus" OF God. When one really gets down to thinking about this matter, it becomes painfully clear that the "monogenes God" manuscript reading is a corruption. If Jesus is the monogenes of God the Father, then the consequential result is that the monogenes God declares the monogenes God the Father. Really?